2025-2026学年第二学期浙江省名校协作体
高三英语试题卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音读两遍。
1. Why does the woman support the project?
A. It creates more public parking. B. It provides an indoor play space.
C. It benefits both wildlife and education.
2. What will Bob do tomorrow?
A. Go camping. B. Attend a party. C. Fly to California.
3. Who might Daniel be?
A. An astronaut. B. A scientist. C. An author.
4. Where are the speakers probably?
A. At their home. B. At a restaurant. C. At a supermarket.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Working as a trainer. B. Opening a fitness center.
C. Becoming a professional athlete.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What just happened to the speakers’ car?
A. It ran out of electricity. B. It had a mechanical issue.
C. It got into a traffic accident.
7. Why does the man prefer to visit physical stores?
A. To have more options. B. To get more favorable prices.
C. To directly test the comfort of the car.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Brother and sister. C. Teacher and student.
9. What does Naomi dislike about AI technology?
A. Its environmental impact. B. Its tendency to produce incorrect answers.
C. Its poor ability to help people solve problems.
10. What is Naomi going to do this evening?
A. Go skating. B. Go out for a meal. C. Go to a friend’s house.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
11. How does Brad mainly get news now?
A. From newspapers. B. From his friends. C. From the Internet.
12. Which kind of news does the woman like to read?
A. Entertainment news. B. Financial news. C. Political news.
13. What do the speakers have in common?
A. They have poor eyesight. B. They don’t like reading online.
C. They don’t love the feel of holding books.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. How long will Lucy work tomorrow?
A. One hour. B. Two and a half hours. C. Three and a half hours.
15. What role will Mark take on in the “Book Bus” project?
A. A driver. B. A manager. C. A volunteer.
16. What will Lucy do next Tuesday?
A. Visit the central park. B. Take the bus for repair. C. Help at the nursing home.
17. How does Lucy feel about the award ceremony?
A. Excited. B. Nervous. C. Confused.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
18. What is the purpose of the event?
A. To present awards. B. To raise money for schools.
C. To celebrate Rob Cook’s retirement.
19. How much money was raised two years ago?
A. $20, 000. B. $25, 000. C. $30, 000.
20. What award did Rob Cook get for the help in building a school?
A. The Pink Rose. B. The Gold Star. C. The White Flower.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。
A
For travelers who love food, attending an international food festival is a perfect way to experience different cultures. The table below lists four of the most famous festivals, each with its unique appeal. At these events, you can taste local specialties, watch cooking shows, and enjoy cultural performances.
Melbourne Food and Wine Festival in Australia (Mar. 10-20)
The Festival is Australia’s most famous culinary event. Held annually, the festival features wine tastings, chef masterclasses, and an array of outdoor dining experiences. With a strong focus on local produce, sustainable farming, and green winemaking practices, the festival celebrates Melbourne’s diverse food scene — from street food to fine dining. Mistura Food Festival in Peru (Sep. 6-27)
As Latin America’s largest food festival, Mistura celebrates Peru’s rich food diversity. It features ingredients from different regions — from Andean potatoes to exotic fruits from the Amazon. Visitors can taste traditional dishes like cuy (roast guinea pig), attend food workshops, watch cultural performances, and shop at handcrafted markets.
Taste of Chicago in USA (Jul. 1-31)
Taste of Chicago is the world’s largest food festival, drawing millions of visitors yearly to Grant Park. This vibrant event features live music from renowned performers, cooking demonstrations by top chefs, and family-oriented fun activities. The festival showcases the diversity of Chicago’s culinary scene, offering everything from the city’s famous deep-dish pizza and Chicago-style hot dogs to high-end international cuisine, suitable for all ages. Oktoberfest in Germany (Sep. 14-28)
Oktoberfest, held annually in Munich, is the world’s biggest beer festival. It centers on Bavarian culture, offering traditional foods such as roast chicken and special beers from Munich’s historic breweries. The festival features lively beer tents, folk music, parades, and cultural performances in traditional Bavarian attire (服装). Guests enjoy carnival rides and games, making it a fun celebration for the whole family.
21. Tourists who enjoy traditional food and crafts would find ______ the best choice.
A. Taste of Chicago B. Oktoberfest
C. Mistura Food Festival D. Melbourne Food and Wine Festival
22. What sets the Melbourne festival apart from the others?
A. It is the largest in its region. B. It includes live music performances.
C. It features traditional costume parades. D. It promotes an eco-friendly approach to food.
23. What do Taste of Chicago and Oktoberfest have in common?
A. Both include cooking shows. B. Both are family-friendly events.
C. Both are held in the same month. D. Both offer quality international cuisine.
B
I was just 26, newly married and pregnant, when I moved into the small house that shared a driveway with a neighbor. While unpacking, I heard a knock and found a man standing at my back door, ruddy-faced and beaming. Handing me a bushel of apples he’d picked, he said, “I am Walter. Welcome good neighbors,” and left.
Those apples were just what I needed for my persistent morning sickness, but I’d no idea at the time that this neighbour would be an antidote for life’s struggles. We lived peacefully side by side for 35 years, coming to know each other through our day-to-day ebb and flow — chatting, lending a helping hand, keeping a watchful eye, never overstepping. It was a special bond — he was always there, steady as rain.
Most of our life unfolded in Walter’s backyard. From dawn to dusk, he practiced sustainable living — drying fruit, making sausage, and tending his garden. Fishing was his year-round passion; my children loved helping clean his catch. Without kids of his own, he cherished their company, and his catches often led to joyful family gatherings under the mulberry tree. After my divorce, Walter quietly became my support: fixing my car, teaching me skills, and even chipping ice off my roof. When my mother was dying, he promised to look out for me — and through my hardest years, he was always a door-knock away.
With time going by, Walter burrowed deep into my heart. Like my mum, Walter could mend nearly anything with his hands — a torn book, a loose button, a quiet sorrow. His laughter was a force that seemed to push back against the darkness he had known. He was the closest thing I had to a father, though mine was alive at the time. We loved each other a lot.
He has been gone for two years now, but every time I eat an apple, I still think of him. So lucky am I to have had him so long, just across the way.
24. How did the author develop a bond with her neighbor Walter?
A. Through small caring actions. B. By giving free gifts to each other.
C. Through years of peaceful coexistence. D. By sharing the same passion for fishing.
25. The phrase “steady as rain” in the second paragraph is used to describe Walter’s ______.
A. preference for rainy days B. constant and reliable presence
C. tendency to overstep others’ life D. unpredictable and unstable mood
26. According to the passage, which idiom best reflects Walter’s role in the author’s life?
A. A hard nut to crack. B. A drop in the ocean.
C. A storm in a teacup. D. A shoulder to cry on.
27. What’s the writer’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To describe Walter’s green lifestyle and hobbies.
B. To recall her dear neighbor and express her gratitude.
C. To show how to build a close neighbourly relationship.
D. To share how she pulled through ups and downs in her life.
C
We live in a world where conversations about mental health are becoming more common. Yet, while sharing struggles often receives understanding, admitting to feeling steady can sometimes feel uncomfortable. Why does saying “I’m doing well” often come with a hint of guilt, as if being okay is somehow inappropriate when others are not?
This phenomenon is linked to what psychologists call upward emotional comparison. In our interconnected society, we constantly measure our own emotional state against the visible suffering of others. As a result, expressions of personal stability can be misunderstood as indifference or privilege, making people hesitate to share their neutral or positive wellbeing. The language of crisis feels more familiar and authentic than the language of calm.
However, feeling okay is not emotional ignorance. Research in positive psychology suggests that emotions like calmness and contentment are not merely personal benefits. They serve a critical social function. Positive emotions can broaden our perspective, enhance problem-solving abilities, and build psychological resources. This inner steadiness, far from being selfish, actually increases our capacity for empathy and compassion. It acts as an emotional bulwark, allowing individuals to navigate the waves of collective stress without being overwhelmed.
Therefore, cultivating and acknowledging this “quiet okayness” is a form of emotional resilience. It involves several practices: answering honestly when genuinely well, valuing the stable middle ground between crisis and excitement, allowing oneself to feel gratitude without guilt, and sharing one’s calm through attentive presence. In challenging times, such steadiness becomes a quiet strength. By openly acknowledging our own periods of stability, we help normalize a full range of human emotions and create space for others to accept their own state without judgment. Ultimately, this honest sharing of wellbeing, one conversation at a time, contributes to building a more emotionally resilient community.
28. Why might people feel guilty saying “I’m doing well”?
A. They feel they face a language crisis. B. They fear their luck won’t last long.
C. They think sharing feelings is impolite. D. They worry it shows a lack of concern.
29. What does the underlined word “bulwark” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. Measurement. B. Barrier. C. Support. D. Pressure.
30. Which of the following actions best illustrates “quiet okayness”?
A. Sharing only anxieties to seek support.
B. Encouraging others to feel constantly happy.
C. Telling a friend you’re well when you truly are.
D. Saying “I’m fine” quickly even if feeling stressed.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. The Quiet Strength of Feeling Okay
B. Why We Should Only Share Our Struggles
C. How Positive Psychology Builds Happiness
D. The Problem of Upward Emotional Comparison
D
A surprising analysis of 15 studies reveals that patients perceive more warmth in AI-generated medical responses than in those from human doctors. The largest study examined 2,164 patient interactions, with similar patterns emerging across smaller datasets. The results, published in the British Medical Bulletin, challenge long-held assumptions about human connection in medicine and run counter to a 2019 UK government report that called empathy an “essential human skill that AI cannot replicate (复制).”
ChatGPT and similar AI chatbots scored roughly 2 points higher than human healthcare professionals (HCPs) on 10-point empathy scales when responding to patient questions via text. AI had a 73% probability of being rated as more empathic than human practitioners in head-to-head comparisons. “In text-only scenarios, AI chatbots are frequently perceived as more empathic than human HCPs,” study authors wrote. The meta-analysis from the Universities of Nottingham and Leicester pooled data from 13 of the 15 studies comparing AI chatbots to doctors, nurses, and other healthcare workers.
Studies drawing from Reddit health forums and patient portals showed similar trends. Questions ranged from interpreting blood test results to managing chronic conditions to understanding cancer treatment options. Across this variety, AI responses were more likely to be rated as warm, understanding, and considerate of patient concerns. The studies couldn’t determine whether AI’s perceived empathy advantage translates to better health outcomes. While empathic communication has been linked to reduced patient pain and anxiety, improved medication adherence, and higher satisfaction with care, these studies measured perception rather than clinical impact.
The findings suggest that empathetic AI can provide valuable support in healthcare fields, thereby enhancing the roles these technologies can play in our everyday lives. While the results were strong, this study represents a broad perspective and does not account for differences in socio-cultural backgrounds among participants. Cultural differences can greatly influence how empathy is perceived and assessed. Future work could look closely at how people from different backgrounds view empathetic responses in both humans and AI to enhance understanding in this area.
32. What is the main finding of the analysis?
A. Empathy is a unique human skill beyond AI’s reach.
B. Patients find AI’s medical replies more sympathetic.
C. AI provides more effective treatment plans than humans.
D. AI shows greater competence in routine patient inquiries.
33. What’s the primary purpose of paragraph 2?
A. To present research evidence. B. To explain underlying causes.
C. To predict future developments. D. To describe relevant background.
34. What can be implied from paragraph 3?
A. AI’s empathy is irrelevant to patient satisfaction.
B. AI’s empathy may not improve actual clinical outcomes.
C. AI’s assistance is widely applied across different patient groups.
D. AI’s empathy can directly lead to better health conditions of patients.
35. What is the author’s attitude towards the studies?
A. Supportive. B. Doubtful. C. Critical. D. Objective.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Maintaining Rhythm and Happiness in Final Year
For students navigating the intensity of final-year studies, happiness is a luxury that you cannot afford during this critical period. However, happiness is not the absence of stress, but a sense of controlled progress and inner peace cultivated within the demanding environment. 36
Why then should you prioritize the cultivation of happiness? In an age of prevalent stress, actively safeguarding this happiness is essential. Chronic anxiety and burnout impair cognitive function, and even hurt your academic performance. Research confirms that greater happiness is associated with better physical health, stronger resilience, and more fulfilling relationships. 37
To achieve this, begin with intentionally designing your daily rhythm. This means scheduling not only study sessions but also breaks. 38 These acts are not time wasted; they are strategic resets that prevent mental fatigue and sustain concentration. For instance, a ten-minute walk after a 90-minute study block can significantly clear mental fog, thus improving efficiency in the next session.
39 While academic goals are vital, defining your self-worth only by test scores is a fragile foundation. Instead, consciously connecting your daily effort to larger personal growth such as problem-solving skills fosters a better sense of accomplishment. This shift from a purely outcome-based to a process-oriented perspective transforms the journey into a source of satisfaction.
In fact, maintaining your own rhythm in senior year is an act of wise self-management. It involves protecting your mental space through structured balance and reframing the purpose of your effort. 40 Then, you are empowered to perform at your best when it matters most.
A. Perspective is key, too.
B. Self-worth also matters.
C. You’ll find all your stress disappear without a trace.
D. It is a feeling of moving forward at a sustainable pace.
E. They can be brief walks, mindful breathing, or a favorite hobby.
F. Thus, investing in happiness can energize you in all aspects of our lives.
G. By doing so, you’ll harvest both academic knowledge and sustainable happiness.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was 1 a.m. on her daughter’s birthday when Marisa Shumaker decided to create some birthday magic. She pulled out a parcel, ready to 41 the perfect gift — a real 61-key music keyboard for her 4-year-old, Aubree. To her shock, when she opened it, she found the parcel contained only a stand and a bench; the keyboard was sold 42 .
Panic set in as she imagined the 43 a broken promise could bring. She searched online and called stores all day long, but nothing was 44 . In a final attempt, she 45 a plea (请求) in a local Facebook group.
Five miles away, Andy Spencer saw her post. “I wouldn’t want a child’s birthday wish to go 46 ,” he later said. He then remembered the 61 full-size keyboard his own daughter 47 used. Spencer quickly messaged Shumaker and arranged to meet at a nearby store.
“When I saw a stranger willing to 48 a keyboard just in time to help,” Shumaker recalled, “it felt like experiencing one of those 49 scenes of a movie.” When she offered to pay, Spencer politely 50 , asking only for a photo of a happy Aubree. He 51 , “If she becomes the next Taylor Swift, give us a shoutout.”
At her birthday party, Aubree 52 into the living room like a joyful rabbit. Her face lit up at the sight of the keyboard. That night, Shumaker texted Spencer her thanks, adding that Aubree was so fascinated by the 53 that she hadn’t even opened her other gifts.
Now Aubree practices nearly every day. “Nothing can 54 this gift,” Shumaker says. That night 55 her faith in everyday magic — it felt like meeting a guardian angel.
41. A. make B. purchase C. unwrap D. deliver
42. A. separately B. quickly C. secretly D. poorly
43. A. anger B. excitement C. disappointment D. confusion
44. A. usable B. available C. enjoyable D. affordable
45. A. updated B. answered C. posted D. rejected
46. A. unnoticed B. unfulfilled C. unchanged D. unexpressed
47. A. barely B. widely C. heavily D. frequently
48. A. tap on B. throw away C. pick up D. part with
49. A. eye-opening B. heart-warming C. nerve-cracking D. mind-numbing
50. A. refused B. accepted C. nodded D. apologized
51. A. stated B. demanded C. whispered D. joked
52. A. skipped B. wandered C. slipped D. tiptoed
53. A. stand B. parcel C. bench D. keyboard
54. A. decorate B. change C. top D. ruin
55. A. challenged B. renewed C. showed D. shook
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Before Benjamin Rene and Loic Michel left their hometown of Annecy in southeastern France 56 the morning of September 13, 2024, China was, to them, a distant yet fascinating place, a name more often encountered in headlines than in everyday conversation.
“In France, China 57 (feel) extremely far away,” says Rene, 27. “It almost represents the end of the world — as far as you can go by walking.”
The idea 58 would eventually turn this abstract distance into lived experience was born two years earlier. The two friends found themselves talking about repetitive work routines and the sense of 59 (stick) in daily life. Surprising even themselves, they made a bold decision: to walk all the way to China, choosing a low-carbon and 60 (environmental) friendly way to travel.
They spent more than half a year preparing. Maps 61 (study) , visas researched, physical training intensified. Eventually, they quit their jobs in Paris, packed only the 62 (essential) into lightweight backpacks, and accepted that the road ahead would last well over a year. Their 63 (plan) route would stretch roughly 13, 000 kilometers, pass through 16 countries, and end in Shanghai.
China, which they entered on Sept 13 after a yearlong journey across Central Asia, marked 64 milestone, not just in geographical terms, but emotionally. By the time they arrived in Lanzhou, the capital city of Northwest China’s Gansu province, they had been on the road 65 (explore) China for about 450 days.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，在英语口语课上，外教Chris组织同学们就“Should We Open School Sports Facilities to the Public?”进行分组讨论，请你代表小组发言，内容包括：
(1) 陈述观点；(2) 说明理由。
注意：
(1) 写作词数应为80左右；
(2) 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My most memorable Thanksgiving happened last year at our local church, where a simple outreach program blossomed into a profound lesson on the power of sharing, care, and inclusion.
A week before Thanksgiving, with a few church members, we wanted to give away holiday meals for families in our community. We contacted neighbors and social workers for families who might be struggling. Their responses were overwhelming: a single mother, Amy, working two jobs to pay medical bills; an elderly couple, Mr and Mrs Jones, whose fixed income couldn’t stretch; the Tomas family, displaced by a recent fire...
Eventually, we created a list of 10 families in financial need, each to receive a Thanksgiving food basket. These were carefully prepared baskets with all necessities for a traditional holiday meal: golden stuffing mix, green beans, sweet potatoes, jellied cranberry sauce, flour, butter, onions, and dessert items, and even turkeys and hams.
That night, the fellowship hall buzzed with laughter and emotion. As each family arrived to pick up their basket, their gratitude was evident. Mr and Mrs Jones shared how this would be their first full meal together in weeks. Amy spoke quietly about job losses, and others about hardships. Yet, in that hall, there was warmth restored.
Just as the families were about to leave, a father, mother, and a child with worn but neat clothes stepped in. The father said they had simply heard through word of mouth that a church was giving out food and decided to come. Clearly, they were not on our list. I approached them and explained that we were unable to provide supplies today for an extra family due to limited resources. I felt so sorry as I looked at the family, hoping they would understand the difficult circumstances. The man responded with an awkward smile, saying, “Oh, never mind. We just came to see if anything was available. Thank you anyway.”
注意：
(1) 续写词数应为150左右；
(2) 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
2025-2026学年第二学期浙江省名校协作体
高三英语参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1-5 CBCAA 6-10 BCBAA 11-15 CABCC 16-20 BBAAC
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21-23 CDB 24-27 ABDB 28-31 DCCA 32-35 BABD
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40 DFEAG
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 CACBC 46-50 BADBA 51-55 DADCB
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. on 57. feels 58. that/which 59. being stuck 60. environmentally
61. were studied 62. essentials 63. planned 64. a 65. to explore
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
Possible version 1
Dear fellow classmates,
On behalf of our group, I’d like to present our view that school sports facilities should be open to the public under proper management.
We believe this practice benefits both the community and our school. Firstly, it promotes public health by providing more people with access to exercise venues. Secondly, it strengthens the bond between the school and the local community, fostering mutual understanding and support. To guarantee a smooth operation, we suggest opening them during weekends or holidays with a prior booking system.
In conclusion, shared facilities can serve as a valuable bridge connecting us all. Thank you.
Possible version 2
Dear fellow classmates,
Our group firmly holds the view that school sports facilities should not be open to the public.
First and foremost, it may lead to safety issues. With strangers coming into the campus, students’ personal safety can’t be fully guaranteed, especially after school hours. Besides, opening facilities to the public will accelerate the wear and tear of equipment, which means the school has to spend more money on maintenance and repair. What’s more, it will occupy the space that should be used by students for physical activities or sports training, affecting our normal exercise plan.
In short, we’re convinced that it is not wise to open school sports to the public. Thank you!
第二节（满分25分）
Just as the disappointed family were about to leave, Mrs Jones stopped them. She hurried over with her neatly packed food basket. “Wait a moment,” she said gently, fetching an empty box from the corner of hall. She pulled out a bag of golden stuffing mix and laid it carefully into the box. Mr Jones stood beside her, nodded in agreement, “We don’t need so much food for just the two of us.” Inspired by their kindness, Amy reached into her basket for a jar of jellied cranberry sauce, while the Tomas family contributed six plump sweet potatoes. One by one, each family stepped forward and offered an item. Soon, the empty box was transformed into the 11th special basket, brimming with all the Thanksgiving necessities, woven together by the love of everyone present.
Seeing the special “basket”, the family were moved to tears. The mother quickly wiped her moist eyes with the back of her hand, and clutched her child tightly to her chest, while the father held the basket as if it were a precious treasure. “Thank you, thank you all so much,” he said hoarsely, his voice choked with deep gratitude. The child looked up at the crowd and whispered a shy yet sincere “thank you” too. As they left, the warm glow of the church lights fell on their figures, gently illuminating their path home. That night, we all grasped the true essence of Thanksgiving — it lies not just in giving, but in sharing hand in hand.